ISC SSCP Deluxe Study Guide with Online Test Engine
SSCP dumps review - Professional Quiz Study Materials
The SSCP certification is a valuable credential for professionals who wish to advance their careers in the field of information security. System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) certification demonstrates an individual's commitment to the field, as well as their ability to apply their knowledge and skillset to real-world situations. Employers often seek out individuals who hold the SSCP certification, as it signifies that they have the knowledge and expertise necessary to protect their organization's sensitive information.
The common mistakes made on the SSCP exam by candidates would be:
Not knowing how to respond to certain questions and guessing their responses. Guessing and guessing until it's too late, and guessing all the way up to the point where they know they are incorrect. Dressing inappropriately for the experience. The common mistakes here can be made by bringing inappropriate materials like cheat sheets and books during the exam. However, it's safe to take a copy of the syllabus and other documents that you can look at anytime you want during your exam. You can keep these in a folder and bring it with you using an organizer to avoid any trouble. Not knowing what to expect. Having anxiety and fear that they wouldn't pass because of their background especially if they've only been in IT for less than two years. Not preparing themselves physically and emotionally. By leaving the test center early before others, thus giving them less time to review their answers. Skipping questions. Not having the right training.
On the other hand, people who pass the exam by preparing themselves with SSCP Dumps would be able to answer questions confidently. Rather than having doubts about their answers; they could feel that they are right about their responses because of what they learned during training. They know what to expect and understand how difficult it is to pass these exams because of all the things they learned from their teachers who are ISC certified security professionals.
NEW QUESTION # 477
Which of the following virus types changes some of its characteristics as it spreads?
- A. Stealth
- B. Polymorphic
- C. Boot Sector
- D. Parasitic
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A Polymorphic virus produces varied but operational copies of itself in hopes of evading anti-virus software.
The following answers are incorrect:
boot sector. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A boot sector virus attacks the boot sector of a drive. It describes the type of attack of the virus and not the characteristics of its composition.
parasitic. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A parasitic virus attaches itself to other files but does not change its characteristics.
stealth. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A stealth virus attempts to hide changes of the affected files but not itself.
NEW QUESTION # 478
At what stage of the applications development process should the security department become involved?
- A. Prior to the implementation
- B. During requirements development
- C. During unit testing
- D. Prior to systems testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.
NEW QUESTION # 479
Memory management in TCSEC levels B3 and A1 operating systems may utilize "data hiding". What does this mean?
- A. It is a form of strong encryption cipher.
- B. Auditing processes and their memory addresses cannot be accessed by user processes.
- C. Only security processes are allowed to write to ring zero memory.
- D. System functions are layered, and none of the functions in a given layer can access data outside that layer.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
Data Hiding is protecting data so that it is only available to higher levels this is done and is also performed by layering, when the software in each layer maintains its own global data and does not directly reference data outside its layers.
The following answers are incorrect:
Auditing processes and their memory addresses cannot be accessed by user processes. Is incorrect because this does not offer data hiding.
Only security processes are allowed to write to ring zero memory. This is incorrect, the security kernel would be responsible for this.
It is a form of strong encryption cipher. Is incorrect because this does not conform to the definition of data hiding.
NEW QUESTION # 480
How often should a Business Continuity Plan be reviewed?
- A. At least once a year
- B. At least every six months
- C. At least Quarterly
- D. At least once a month
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Analysis and Monitoring
Explanation/Reference:
As stated in SP 800-34 Rev. 1:
To be effective, the plan must be maintained in a ready state that accurately reflects system requirements, procedures, organizational structure, and policies. During the Operation/Maintenance phase of the SDLC, information systems undergo frequent changes because of shifting business needs, technology upgrades, or new internal or external policies.
As a general rule, the plan should be reviewed for accuracy and completeness at an organization-defined frequency (at least once a year for the purpose of the exam) or whenever significant changes occur to any element of the plan. Certain elements, such as contact lists, will require more frequent reviews.
Remember, there could be two good answers as specified above. Either once a year or whenever significant changes occur to the plan. You will of course get only one of the two presented within you exam.
Reference(s) used for this question:
NIST SP 800-34 Revision 1
NEW QUESTION # 481
What is considered the most important type of error to avoid for a biometric access control system?
- A. Type II Error
- B. Combined Error Rate
- C. Type I Error
- D. Crossover Error Rate
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a biometric system is used for access control, the most important error
is the false accept or false acceptance rate, or Type II error, where the system would
accept an impostor.
A Type I error is known as the false reject or false rejection rate and is not as important in
the security context as a type II error rate. A type one is when a valid company employee is
rejected by the system and he cannot get access even thou it is a valid user.
The Crossover Error Rate (CER) is the point at which the false rejection rate equals the
false acceptance rate if your would create a graph of Type I and Type II errors. The lower
the CER the better the device would be.
The Combined Error Rate is a distracter and does not exist.
Source: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, Micki, Information Security Management
Handbook, 4th edition (volume 1), 2000, CRC Press, Chapter 1, Biometric Identification
(page 10).
NEW QUESTION # 482
What is the greatest danger from DHCP?
- A. Having the organization's mail server unreachable.
- B. Having the wrong router used as the default gateway.
- C. Having multiple clients on the same LAN having the same IP address.
- D. An intruder on the network impersonating a DHCP server and thereby misconfiguring the DHCP clients.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The greatest danger from BootP or DHCP (Dynamic Host Control Protocol) is from an intruder on the network impersonating a DHCP server and thereby misconfiguring the DHCP clients. Other choices are possible consequences of DHCP impersonation.
Source: STREBE, Matthew and PERKINS, Charles, Firewalls 24seven, Sybex 2000, Chapter 4: Sockets and Services from a Security Viewpoint.
NEW QUESTION # 483
Which of the following devices enables more than one signal to be sent out simultaneously over one physical circuit?
- A. Multiplexer
- B. Wan switch
- C. Channel service unit/Data service unit (CSU/DSU)
- D. Router
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Multiplexers are devices that enable enables more than one signal to be sent out simultaneously over one physical circuit.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page
118).
NEW QUESTION # 484
A 'Pseudo flaw' is which of the following?
- A. Used for testing for bounds violations in application programming.
- B. An apparent loophole deliberately implanted in an operating system program as a trap for intruders.
- C. An omission when generating Psuedo-code.
- D. A normally generated page fault causing the system to halt.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A Pseudo flaw is something that looks like it is vulnerable to attack, but really acts as an alarm or triggers automatic actions when an intruder attempts to exploit the flaw.
The following answers are incorrect:
An omission when generating Psuedo-code. Is incorrect because it is a distractor.
Used for testing for bounds violations in application programming. Is incorrect, this is a testing methodology.
A normally generated page fault causing the system to halt. This is incorrect because it is distractor.
NEW QUESTION # 485
What is it called when a computer uses more than one CPU in parallel to execute instructions?
- A. Multithreading
- B. Parallel running
- C. Multiprocessing
- D. Multitasking
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A system with multiple processors is called a multiprocessing system.
Multitasking is incorrect. Multitasking involves sharing the processor amoung all ready processes.
Though it appears to the user that multiple processes are executing at the same time, only one process is running at any point in time.
Multithreading is incorrect. The developer can structure a program as a collection of independent threads to achieve better concurrency. For example, one thread of a program might be performing a calculation while another is waiting for additional input from the user.
"Parallel running" is incorrect. This is not a real term and is just a distraction.
References:
CBK, pp. 315-316
AIO3, pp. 234 - 239
NEW QUESTION # 486
What would be the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) of the threat "user input error", in the case where a company employs 100 data entry clerks and every one of them makes one input error each month?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
If every one of the 100 clerks makes 1 error 12 times per year, it makes a total of 1200 errors. The Annnualized Rate of Occurence (ARO) is a value that represents the estimated frequency in which a threat is expected to occur. The range can be from 0.0 to a large number. Having an average of 1200 errors per year means an ARO of 1200
NEW QUESTION # 487
Which layer of the OSI/ISO model handles physical addressing, network topology, line discipline, error notification, orderly delivery of frames, and optional flow control?
- A. Physical
- B. Session
- C. Data link
- D. Network
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The Data Link layer provides data transport across a physical link. It handles physical addressing, network topology, line discipline, error notification, orderly delivery of frames, and optional flow control.
Source: ROTHKE, Ben, CISSP CBK Review presentation on domain 2, August 1999.
NEW QUESTION # 488
What is called the verification that the user's claimed identity is valid and is usually implemented through a user password at log-on time?
- A. Identification
- B. Authentication
- C. Integrity
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Authentication is verification that the user's claimed identity is valid and is usually implemented through a user password at log-on time.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 36.
NEW QUESTION # 489
What can best be defined as high-level statements, beliefs, goals and objectives?
- A. Standards
- B. Policies
- C. Guidelines
- D. Procedures
Answer: B
Explanation:
Policies are high-level statements, beliefs, goals and objectives and the general means for their attainment for a specific subject area. Standards are mandatory activities, action, rules or regulations designed to provide policies with the support structure and specific direction they require to be effective. Guidelines are more general statements of how to achieve the policies objectives by providing a framework within which to implement procedures. Procedures spell out the specific steps of how the policy and supporting standards and how guidelines will be implemented. Source: HARE, Chris, Security management Practices CISSP Open Study Guide, version 1.0, april 1999.
NEW QUESTION # 490
Which of the following elements is NOT included in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?
- A. Certificate revocation
- B. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
- C. Repository
- D. Timestamping
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Other elements are included in a PKI.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 165).
NEW QUESTION # 491
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental component of an alarm in an intrusion detection system?
- A. Response
- B. Sensor
- C. Enunciator
- D. Communications
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Analysis and Monitoring
Explanation/Reference:
Response is the correct choice. A response would essentially be the action that is taken once an alarm has been produced by an IDS, but is not a fundamental component of the alarm.
The following are incorrect answers:
Communications is the component of an alarm that delivers alerts through a variety of channels such as email, pagers, instant messages and so on.
An Enunciator is the component of an alarm that uses business logic to compose the content and format of an alert and determine the recipients of that alert.
A sensor is a fundamental component of IDS alarms. A sensor detects an event and produces an appropriate notification.
Domain: Access Control
Reference:
Official guide to the CISSP CBK. page 203.
NEW QUESTION # 492
For maximum security design, what type of fence is most effective and cost-effective method (Foot are being used as measurement unit below)?
- A. Double fencing
- B. 3' to 4' high
- C. 6' to 7' high
- D. 8' high and above with strands of barbed wire
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The most commonly used fence is the chain linked fence and it is the most affordable. The standard is a six-foot high fence with two-inch mesh square openings. The material should consist of nine-gauge vinyl or galvanized metal. Nine-gauge is a typical fence material installed in residential areas.
Additionally, it is recommended to place barbed wire strands angled out from the top of the fence at a 45° angle and away from the protected area with three strands running across the top. This will provide for a seven-foot fence. There are several variations of the use of "top guards" using V-shaped barbed wire or the use of concertina wire as an enhancement, which has been a replacement for more traditional three strand barbed wire "top guards."
The fence should be fastened to ridged metal posts set in concrete every six feet with additional bracing at the corners and gate openings. The bottom of the fence should be stabilized against intruders crawling under by attaching posts along the bottom to keep the fence from being pushed or pulled up from the bottom. If the soil is sandy, the bottom edge of the fence should be installed below ground level.
For maximum security design, the use of double fencing with rolls of concertina wire positioned between the two fences is the most effective deterrent and cost-efficient method. In this design, an intruder is required to use an extensive array of ladders and equipment to breach the fences.
Most fencing is largely a psychological deterrent and a boundary marker rather than a barrier, because in most cases such fences can be rather easily penetrated unless added security measures are taken to enhance the security of the fence. Sensors attached to the fence to provide electronic monitoring of cutting or scaling the fence can be used.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 24416-24431). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 493
Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the following?
- A. acceptability
- B. availability
- C. integrity
- D. confidentiality
Answer: B
Explanation:
Availability is making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is
needed.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 59.
NEW QUESTION # 494
When a possible intrusion into your organization's information system has been detected, which of the following actions should be performed first?
- A. Determine to what extent systems and data are compromised.
- B. Communicate with relevant parties.
- C. Eliminate all means of intruder access.
- D. Contain the intrusion.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Once an intrusion into your organization's information system has been detected, the first action that needs to be performed is determining to what extent systems and data are compromised (if they really are), and then take action.
This is the good old saying: "Do not cry wolf until you know there is a wolf for sure" Sometimes it smells like a wolf, it looks like a wolf, but it may not be a wolf. Technical problems or bad hardware might cause problems that looks like an intrusion even thou it might not be. You must make sure that a crime has in fact been committed before implementing your reaction plan.
Information, as collected and interpreted through analysis, is key to your decisions and actions while executing response procedures. This first analysis will provide information such as what attacks were used, what systems and data were accessed by the intruder, what the intruder did after obtaining access and what the intruder is currently doing (if the intrusion has not been contained).
The next step is to communicate with relevant parties who need to be made aware of the intrusion in a timely manner so they can fulfil their responsibilities.
Step three is concerned with collecting and protecting all information about the compromised systems and causes of the intrusion. It must be carefully collected, labelled, catalogued, and securely stored.
Containing the intrusion, where tactical actions are performed to stop the intruder's access, limit the extent of the intrusion, and prevent the intruder from causing further damage, comes next.
Since it is more a long-term goal, eliminating all means of intruder access can only be achieved last, by implementing an ongoing security improvement process.
Reference used for this question:
ALLEN, Julia H., The CERT Guide to System and Network Security Practices, Addison-Wesley, 2001, Chapter 7: Responding to Intrusions (pages 271-289).
NEW QUESTION # 495
Which of the following statements pertaining to block ciphers is incorrect?
- A. Some Block ciphers can operate internally as a stream.
- B. Plain text is encrypted with a public key and decrypted with a private key.
- C. It is more suitable for software than hardware implementations.
- D. It operates on fixed-size blocks of plaintext.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Block ciphers do not use public cryptography (private and public keys). Block ciphers is a type of symmetric-key encryption algorithm that transforms a fixed-size block of plaintext (unencrypted text) data into a block of ciphertext (encrypted text) data of the same length. They are appropriate for software implementations and can operate internally as a stream. See more info below about DES in Output Feedback Mode (OFB), which makes use internally of a stream cipher.
The output feedback (OFB) mode makes a block cipher into a synchronous stream cipher. It generates keystream blocks, which are then XORed with the plaintext blocks to get the ciphertext. Just as with other stream ciphers, flipping a bit in the ciphertext produces a flipped bit in the plaintext at the same location. This property allows many error correcting codes to function normally even when applied before encryption.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Wikipedia on Block Cipher mode at: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Block_cipher_mode_of_operation and http://www.itl.nist.gov/fipspubs/fip81.htm
NEW QUESTION # 496
This type of supporting evidence is used to help prove an idea or a point, however It cannot stand on its own, it is used as a supplementary tool to help prove a primary piece of evidence. What is the name of this type of evidence?
- A. Opinion evidence
- B. Secondary evidence
- C. Circumstantial evidence
- D. Corroborative evidence
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
This type of supporting evidence is used to help prove an idea or a point, however It cannot stand on its own, it is used as a supplementary tool to help prove a primary piece of evidence. Corrobative evidence takes many forms.
In a rape case for example, this could consist of torn clothing, soiled bed sheets, 911 emergency calls tapes, and prompt complaint witnesses.
There are many types of evidence that exist. Below you have explanations of some of the most common types:
Physical Evidence
Physical evidence is any evidence introduced in a trial in the form of a physical object, intended to prove a fact in issue based on its demonstrable physical characteristics. Physical evidence can conceivably include all or part of any object.
In a murder trial for example (or a civil trial for assault), the physical evidence might include DNA left by the attacker on the victim's body, the body itself, the weapon used, pieces of carpet spattered with blood, or casts of footprints or tire prints found at the scene of the crime.
Real Evidence
Real evidence is a type of physical evidence and consists of objects that were involved in a case or actually played a part in the incident or transaction in question.
Examples include the written contract, the defective part or defective product, the murder weapon, the gloves used by an alleged murderer. Trace evidence, such as fingerprints and firearm residue, is a species of real evidence. Real evidence is usually reported upon by an expert witness with appropriate qualifications to give an opinion. This normally means a forensic scientist or one qualified in forensic engineering.
Admission of real evidence requires authentication, a showing of relevance, and a showing that the object is in
"the same or substantially the same condition" now as it was on the relevant date. An object of real evidence is authenticated through the senses of witnesses or by circumstantial evidence called chain of custody.
Documentary
Documentary evidence is any evidence introduced at a trial in the form of documents. Although this term is most widely understood to mean writings on paper (such as an invoice, a contract or a will), the term actually include any media by which information can be preserved. Photographs, tape recordings, films, and printed emails are all forms of documentary evidence.
Documentary versus physical evidence
A piece of evidence is not documentary evidence if it is presented for some purpose other than the examination of the contents of the document. For example, if a blood-spattered letter is introduced solely to show that the defendant stabbed the author of the letter from behind as it was being written, then the evidence is physical evidence, not documentary evidence. However, a film of the murder taking place would be documentary evidence (just as a written description of the event from an eyewitness). If the content of that same letter is then introduced to show the motive for the murder, then the evidence would be both physical and documentary.
Documentary Evidence Authentication
Documentary evidence is subject to specific forms of authentication, usually through the testimony of an eyewitness to the execution of the document, or to the testimony of a witness able to identify the handwriting of the purported author. Documentary evidence is also subject to the best evidence rule, which requires that the original document be produced unless there is a good reason not to do so.
The role of the expert witness
Where physical evidence is of a complexity that makes it difficult for the average person to understand its significance, an expert witness may be called to explain to the jury the proper interpretation of the evidence at hand.
Digital Evidence or Electronic Evidence
Digital evidence or electronic evidence is any probative information stored or transmitted in digital form that a party to a court case may use at trial.
The use of digital evidence has increased in the past few decades as courts have allowed the use of e-mails, digital photographs, ATM transaction logs, word processing documents, instant message histories, files saved from accounting programs, spreadsheets, internet browser histories, databases, the contents of computer memory, computer backups, computer printouts, Global Positioning System tracks, logs from a hotel's electronic door locks, and digital video or audio files.
While many courts in the United States have applied the Federal Rules of Evidence to digital evidence in the same way as more traditional documents, courts have noted very important differences. As compared to the more traditional evidence, courts have noted that digital evidence tends to be more voluminous, more difficult to destroy, easily modified, easily duplicated, potentially more expressive, and more readily available. As such, some courts have sometimes treated digital evidence differently for purposes of authentication, hearsay, the best evidence rule, and privilege. In December 2006, strict new rules were enacted within the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure requiring the preservation and disclosure of electronically stored evidence.
Demonstrative Evidence
Demonstrative evidence is evidence in the form of a representation of an object. This is, as opposed to, real evidence, testimony, or other forms of evidence used at trial.
Examples of demonstrative evidence include photos, x-rays, videotapes, movies, sound recordings, diagrams, forensic animation, maps, drawings, graphs, animation, simulations, and models. It is useful for assisting a finder of fact (fact-finder) in establishing context among the facts presented in a case. To be admissible, a demonstrative exhibit must "fairly and accurately" represent the real object at the relevant time.
Chain of custody
Chain of custody refers to the chronological documentation, and/or paper trail, showing the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence, physical or electronic. Because evidence can be used in court to convict persons of crimes, it must be handled in a scrupulously careful manner to avoid later allegations of tampering or misconduct which can compromise the case of the prosecution toward acquittal or to overturning a guilty verdict upon appeal.
The idea behind recoding the chain of custody is to establish that the alleged evidence is fact related to the alleged crime - rather than, for example, having been planted fraudulently to make someone appear guilty.
Establishing the chain of custody is especially important when the evidence consists of fungible goods. In practice, this most often applies to illegal drugs which have been seized by law enforcement personnel. In such cases, the defendant at times disclaims any knowledge of possession of the controlled substance in question.
Accordingly, the chain of custody documentation and testimony is presented by the prosecution to establish that the substance in evidence was in fact in the possession of the defendant.
An identifiable person must always have the physical custody of a piece of evidence. In practice, this means that a police officer or detective will take charge of a piece of evidence, document its collection, and hand it over to an evidence clerk for storage in a secure place. These transactions, and every succeeding transaction between the collection of the evidence and its appearance in court, should be completely documented chronologically in order to withstand legal challenges to the authenticity of the evidence. Documentation should include the conditions under which the evidence is gathered, the identity of all evidence handlers, duration of evidence custody, security conditions while handling or storing the evidence, and the manner in which evidence is transferred to subsequent custodians each time such a transfer occurs (along with the signatures of persons involved at each step).
Example
An example of "Chain of Custody" would be the recovery of a bloody knife at a murder scene:
Officer Andrew collects the knife and places it into a container, then gives it to forensics technician Bill.
Forensics technician Bill takes the knife to the lab and collects fingerprints and other evidence from the knife.
Bill then gives the knife and all evidence gathered from the knife to evidence clerk Charlene. Charlene then stores the evidence until it is needed, documenting everyone who has accessed the original evidence (the knife, and original copies of the lifted fingerprints).
The Chain of Custody requires that from the moment the evidence is collected, every transfer of evidence from person to person be documented and that it be provable that nobody else could have accessed that evidence.
It is best to keep the number of transfers as low as possible.
In the courtroom, if the defendant questions the Chain of Custody of the evidence it can be proven that the knife in the evidence room is the same knife found at the crime scene. However, if there are discrepancies and it cannot be proven who had the knife at a particular point in time, then the Chain of Custody is broken and the defendant can ask to have the resulting evidence declared inadmissible.
"Chain of custody" is also used in most chemical sampling situations to maintain the integrity of the sample by providing documentation of the control, transfer, and analysis of samples. Chain of custody is especially important in environmental work where sampling can identify the existence of contamination and can be used to identify the responsible party.
REFERENCES:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 23173-23185). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Documentary_evidence
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Physical_evidence
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_evidence
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demonstrative_evidence
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_evidence
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chain_of_custody
NEW QUESTION # 497
Which of the following is NOT a form of detective administrative control?
- A. Rotation of duties
- B. Required vacations
- C. Separation of duties
- D. Security reviews and audits
Answer: C
Explanation:
Detective administrative controls warn of administrative control violations. Rotation of duties, required vacations and security reviews and audits are forms of detective administrative controls. Separation of duties is the practice of dividing the steps in a system function among different individuals, so as to keep a single individual from subverting the process, thus a preventive control rather than a detective control. Source: DUPUIS, Cl?ment, Access Control Systems and Methodology CISSP Open Study Guide, version 1.0 (march 2002).
NEW QUESTION # 498
Which of the following is an issue with signature-based intrusion detection systems?
- A. Hackers can circumvent signature evaluations.
- B. It runs only on the windows operating system
- C. Only previously identified attack signatures are detected.
- D. Signature databases must be augmented with inferential elements.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
An issue with signature-based ID is that only attack signatures that are stored in their database are detected.
New attacks without a signature would not be reported. They do require constant updates in order to maintain their effectiveness.
Reference used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 49.
NEW QUESTION # 499
When referring to a computer crime investigation, which of the following would be the MOST important step required in order to preserve and maintain a proper chain of custody of evidence:
- A. Verifiable documentation indicating the who, what, when, where, and how the evidence was handled should be available.
- B. Log files containing information regarding an intrusion are retained for at least as long as normal business records, and longer in the case of an ongoing investigation.
- C. Law enforcement officials should be contacted for advice on how and when to collect critical information.
- D. Evidence has to be collected in accordance with all laws and all legal regulations.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Two concepts that are at the heart of dealing effectively with digital/electronic evidence, or any evidence for that matter, are the chain of custody and authenticity/integrity.
The chain of custody refers to the who, what, when, where, and how the evidence was handled-from its identification through its entire life cycle, which ends with destruction or permanent archiving.
Any break in this chain can cast doubt on the integrity of the evidence and on the professionalism of those directly involved in either the investigation or the collection and handling of the evidence. The chain of custody requires following a formal process that is well documented and forms part of a standard operating procedure that is used in all cases, no exceptions.
The following are incorrect answers: Evidence has to be collected in accordance with all laws and legal regulations. Evidence would have to be collected in accordance with applicable laws and regulations but not necessarily with ALL laws and regulations. Only laws and regulations that applies would be followed.
Law enforcement officials should be contacted for advice on how and when to collect critical information. It seems you failed to do your homework, once you have an incident it is a bit late to do this. Proper crime investigation as well as incident response is all about being prepared ahead of time. Obviously, you are improvising if you need to call law enforcement to find out what to do. It is a great way of contaminating your evidence by mistake if you don't have a well documented processs with clear procedures that needs to be followed.
Log files containing information regarding an intrusion are retained for at least as long as normal business records, and longer in the case of an ongoing investigation. Specific legal requirements exists for log retention and they are not the same as normal business records. Laws such as Basel, HIPPAA, SOX, and others has specific requirements.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 23465-23470). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition. and ALLEN, Julia H., The CERT Guide to System and Network Security Practices, Addison-Wesley, 2001, Chapter 7: Responding to Intrusions (pages 282-285).
NEW QUESTION # 500
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