[2026] Pass Cisco 400-007 Exam in First Attempt Easily
The Most Efficient 400-007 Pdf Dumps For Assured Success
Factual Information about 400-007
This exam has a duration of 120 minutes. Plus, the candidates will need to reply to 90 to 110 questions. The vendor doesn’t give detailed information on the type of questions the candidates will find so they should be ready to face a quite difficult exam. When it comes to the registration process, the candidates will finalize the enrollment via the Pearson VUE platform. Also, the candidates shouldn’t forget that this exam will be launched in November 2021 and it is necessary to obtain the CCDE certification. Apart from this test, the candidates will need to undertake the CCDE v3.0 practical exam if they want to get certified. As for the prerequisites, the vendor doesn’t mention any mandatory conditions. However, the exam-takers should gain knowledge of the tested topics. Also, it will be helpful if they had at least five years of practical experience in architecting and designing network solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 271
Network designers often segment networks by creating modules for various reasons Sometimes however a network can be unintentionally segmented For instance, if the only way to connect a remote site to a headquarters or regional site is to connect them both to the public Internet the corporate network is now unintentionally segmented Which of the following option can be used to desegment the network in this situation?
- A. Build virtual networks that pass over the network
- B. Mark traffic for special handling through quality of service
- C. Block specific sources from reaching specific destinations
- D. Configure little to no control data plane policy
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 272
Refer to the exhibit.
Which impact of using three or more ABRs between the backbone area and area 1 is true?
- A. In a large-scale network multiple ABRs can create microloops
- B. Prefixes from the non-backbone area are advertised by one ABR to the backbone
- C. Multiple ABRs reduce the CPU processing on each ABR due to splitting prefix advertisement
- D. In a large-scale network LSA replication by all ABRs can cause serious scalability issues
Answer: A
Explanation:
In OSPF multi-area designs with multiple ABRs, when there is temporary inconsistency between the ABRs' type-3 summary LSAs, microloops can occur during convergence. These loops happen due to slight differences in LSA arrival and SPF calculations across routers while the network is converging.
* Microloops are short-lived but can cause brief packet loss.
* This becomes more likely as the number of ABRs grows and IGP flooding domains increase.
CCDE v3.1 emphasizes careful ABR design and possible use of loop avoidance mechanisms (e.g., LFA, microloop prevention techniques) in large-scale OSPF designs.
Why other options are incorrect:
* A: LSA flooding in OSPF scales well; type-3 LSA replication is not the primary scalability issue.
* B: ABRs process all LSAs regardless; load is not split.
* D: Multiple ABRs all independently summarize and advertise into the backbone.
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NEW QUESTION # 273
A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. What should be on the switches but not on the controller?
- A. a northbound interface
- B. a southbound interface
- C. control plane functions
- D. data plane functions
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture:
Switches:
Primarily handle data plane functions: forwarding packets based on rules received from the controller.
They do not make routing or policy decisions on their own.
Controller:
Handles control plane functions: determining how traffic should flow.
Communicates with switches using a southbound interface (e.g., OpenFlow).
Offers a northbound interface for applications or orchestration tools.
NEW QUESTION # 274
A financial company requires that a custom TCP-based stock-trading application be prioritized over all other traffic for the business due to the associated revenue. The company also requires that VoIP be prioritized for manual trades. Which directive should be followed when a QoS strategy is developed for the business?
- A. The custom application and VoIP must be assigned their own separate priority queue
- B. Avoid placing the custom application in a CBWFQ queue that contains other UDP applications
- C. Allow VoIP and the custom application to share the same priority queue
- D. Interleave the custom application with other TCP applications in the same CBWFQ queue
Answer: A
Explanation:
Without two individual dedicated queues, both VoIP & Custom app might face degradation of service.
NEW QUESTION # 275
An enterprise has identified these causes for inefficient CAPEX spending:
CAPEX planning is driven by technology and not by business objectives.
The CAPEX planning team lacks the data it needs to perform due diligence tasks.
The organizational structure lacks sufficient accountability and incentives.
Which corporate cultural change contributes to improving the effectiveness of CAPEX spending?
- A. Build a financial control function that delivers high-quality reports on operational expenses for business insight and financial reporting.
- B. CxO-level staff must have a full technical understanding but the should not trust their technical leaders fully.
- C. Adopt new organizational models that promote real accountability for ROI. not just revenue. EBITDA, and cash.
- D. Marketing and product management divisions must reduce their CAPEX budgets significantly to drive the change.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 276
Which two statements describe the functionality of OSPF packet-pacing timers? (Choose two )
The group-pacing timer controls the interval that is used for group and individual LSA refreshment
- A. OSPF retransmission-pacing timers allow control of interpacket spaang between consecutive link-state update packets in the OSPF retransmission queue.
- B. OSPF flood-pacing timers allow dynamic control of the OSPF transmission queue size
- C. OSPF retransmission-pacing timers allow control of packet interleaving between nonconsecutive link-state update packets in the OSPF retransmission queue.
- D. OSPF flood-pacing timers allow control of interpacket spacing between consecutive link-state update packets in the OSPF transmission queue
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 277
Retef to the exhibit.
This network is running OSPF and EIGRP as the routing protocols Mutual redistribution of the routing protocols has been contoured on the appropriate ASBRs The OSPF network must be designed so that flapping routes m EIGRP domains do not affect the SPF runs within OSPF The design solution must not affect the way EIGRP routes are propagated into the EIGRP domains Which technique accomplishes the requirement?
- A. route summarization the ASBR interfaces facing the OSPF domain
- B. route summarization on the appropriate ABRS.
- C. route summarization on EIDRP routers connecting toward the ASBR
- D. route summarization on the appropriate ASBRS.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 278
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the corresponding network management options on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 279
A consultant needs to evaluate project management methodologies for a new service deployment on the existing network of a customer. The customer wants to be involved in the end-to-end project progress and be provided with frequent updates. The customer also wants the ability to change the requirements if needed, as the project progresses. Which project management methodology should be used?
- A. phased
- B. Waterfall
- C. three principles
- D. Agile
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 280
IT and security managers should assess their operations and systems from the perspective of potential hackers. It includes the use of analytical activities and processes like behavior monitoring, social media monitoring, and security best practices.
Which process should be deployed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands?
- A. operational security
- B. network management
- C. centralized monitoring
- D. productive benchmarking
Answer: A
Explanation:
Operational security (OPSEC) is the process of identifying, monitoring, and protecting sensitive information from potential adversaries. By assessing systems as a hacker would, and applying practices like behavior and social media monitoring, OPSEC prevents critical information from being exposed or misused.
NEW QUESTION # 281
Company XYZ plans to run OSPF on a DMVPN network. They want to use spoke-to-spoke tunnels in the design. What is a drawback or concern in this type of design?
- A. Manual configuration of the spoke IP address on the hub will be needed.
- B. There will be split-horizon issue at the hub.
- C. Manual configuration of the spokes with the appropriate priority will be needed.
- D. Additional host routes will be inserted into the routing tables.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Split Horizon is EIGRP's loop prevention mechanism. Distance Vector protocols also use Split Horizon for loop prevention.
If you're going to use OSPF, make sure that your hubs are the DR and BDR. If you only have one hub, make it the DR, and don't configure a BDR.The key point here is that the spokes should never be elected as DR or BDR. You can enforce this with ip ospf priority 0.
NEW QUESTION # 282
IPFIX data collection via standalone IPFIX probes is an alternative to flow collection from routers and switches. Which use case is suitable for using IPFIX probes?\
- A. security
- B. observation of critical links
- C. performance monitoring
- D. capacity planning
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 283
What is a country-specific requirement that data is subject to the laws of the country in which it is collected or processed and must remain within its borders?
- A. Data rationality
- B. Data inheritance
- C. Data sovereignty
- D. Data replication
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
* A: Data sovereignty refers to legal and regulatory policies that require data to reside within a particular country and be subject to its laws. This impacts how cloud and hybrid architectures are designed and which regions can be used for storage or compute.
Other options:
* B: "Data rationality" is not a recognized regulatory or legal term.
* C: Data inheritance refers to metadata or permission models, not legal jurisdiction.
* D: Data replication is a technical process, not a legal requirement.
NEW QUESTION # 284
Company XYZ has a hub-and-spoke topology over an SP-managed infrastructure. To measure traffic performance metrics, they implemented IP SLA senders on all spoke CE routers and an IP SLA responder on the hub CE router.
What must they monitor to have visibility on the potential performance impact due to the constantly increasing number of spoke sites?
- A. memory usage on the hub router
- B. interface buffers on the hub and spoke routers
- C. CPU and memory usage on the spoke routers
- D. CPU usage on the hub router
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 285
Which two characteristics apply to firewall transparent mode operations in a firewall solution design?
(Choose two.)
- A. The firewall can participate actively on spanning tree.
- B. Changes in the existing IP addressing and subnets are required
- C. The firewall acts like a router hop in the network.
- D. OSPF adjacencies can be established through the firewall
- E. Multicast traffic can traverse the firewall.
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION # 286
Drag and drop the optical technology design characteristics on the left to the correct optical technologies on the right. Not all options are used
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 287
Company ABC wants to minimize the risk of users plugging unauthorized switches and hubs into the network. Which two features can be used on the LAN access ports to support this design requirement?
(Choose two.)
- A. Loop Guard
- B. Root Guard
- C. DTF
- D. BPDU Guard
- E. PortFast
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
* D (Root Guard): Prevents unauthorized devices from becoming the STP root by blocking superior BPDUs on access ports.
* E (BPDU Guard): Immediately shuts down ports that receive unexpected BPDUs, protecting against accidental or malicious connection of switches to access ports.
Why other options are incorrect:
* A: Loop Guard protects against unidirectional link failures but not unauthorized devices.
* B: PortFast speeds up STP convergence on access ports but does not provide security.
* C: DTF (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) is not a security feature.
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NEW QUESTION # 288
Various teams in different organizations within an enterprise are preparing low-level design documents to capture network parameters using a Waterfall project model:
- hardware sizing and power consumption
- Layer 2 and layer 3 services parameters
- configuration of all control plane protocols
Input from relevant stakeholders was captured at the start of the project, and the project scope has been defined based on the parameters above. What impact will it have on documentation and project deliverables if the stakeholders ask to have changes earned out in the network before the information has been captured?
- A. This provides a flexible approach to incorporate changes
- B. Significant effort and time are required
- C. This provides more opportunity to think outside the box
- D. Rework is expected before the delivery
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 289
You have been tasked with designing a data center interconnect to provide business continuity.
You want to encrypt the traffic over the DCI using IEEE 802.1AE MACsec to prevent the deployment of any firewall or IPS.
Which two interconnect technologies support MACsec? (Choose two.)
- A. DMVPN
- B. MPLS Layer 3 VPN
- C. EoMPLS
- D. GET VPN
- E. KVPLS
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION # 290
Router R1 is a BGP speaker with one peering neighbor over link "A". When link "A" fails, routing announcements are terminated, which results in the tearing down of the state for all BGP routes at each end of the link. What is this a good example of?
- A. Redundancy
- B. Resiliency
- C. Fault isolation
- D. Fate sharing
Answer: D
Explanation:
* D (Fate sharing):Fate sharing refers to a design where multiple dependent states fail together (i.e., when physical link fails, BGP session and its routes fail too).
Other options explained:
* A: Fault isolation refers to containing failures, not dependent failure.
* B: Resiliency is the ability to recover, not simultaneous failure.
* C: Redundancy would prevent total loss if implemented.
NEW QUESTION # 291
Which security architecture component offers streamlined security operations, ease of use, and visibility across all network security elements, independent of location or form factor?
- A. Integrated actionable intelligence
- B. Distributed enforcement
- C. Threat-centric protection
- D. Central command and control
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Central command and control refers to a unified, centralized security policy and management platform that integrates and coordinates all security components-regardless of physical location or form factor (virtual, physical, cloud). It streamlines operations, reduces overhead, and improves visibility and control.
* D is correct because central control simplifies policy enforcement and visibility.
* A (threat-centric protection) focuses more on response and defense rather than architecture.
* B (integrated actionable intelligence) refers to threat feeds, not central management.
* C (distributed enforcement) is an implementation strategy, not a management component.
NEW QUESTION # 292
Which two characteristics apply to firewall transparent mode operations in a firewall solution design? (Choose two.)
- A. The firewall can participate actively on spanning tree.
- B. Changes in the existing IP addressing and subnets are required
- C. The firewall acts like a router hop in the network.
- D. OSPF adjacencies can be established through the firewall
- E. Multicast traffic can traverse the firewall.
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION # 293
Which mechanism enables small, unmanaged switches to plug into ports of access switches without risking switch loops?
- A. Root guard
- B. BPDU guard
- C. PortFast
- D. UDLD
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 294
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The Cisco 400-007 exam is intended for network designers with at least seven years of experience in designing complex network infrastructures. Candidates who pass the Cisco 400-007 exam will demonstrate their expertise in designing scalable, secure, and highly available network infrastructures that meet the business needs of their clients. Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE) Written Exam certification is highly valued in the industry, and it can open up several job opportunities for certified professionals.
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